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Jawaharlal Nehru Architecture and Fine Arts University Jawaharlal Nehru Architecture and Fine Arts University
(Established under Andhra pradesh Legislature Act No. 31of 2008)
Masab Tank, Hyderabad, Telangana, India.
 
 
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Placement Cell
University Email
 
 
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU ARCHITECTURE AND FINE ARTS UNIVERSITY
(Established Under A.P. Legislature Act. No. 31of 2008)
Mahaveer Marg, Masab Tank, Hyderabad 500 028
 
Ph.D ELIGIBILITY ENTRANCE TEST (PEET):2014-15
Syllabus & Sample Questions

Dated : 05-11-2014
 
Ph.d Eligibility Entrance Test (PEET) is proposed to be held in the month of December 2014 (actual date will be notified later). The entrance test pattern is as follows:

Scheme and Syllabus:
The test shall consist of the requirement of proficiency and skill in ‘Research Aptitude’, ‘English Language Skills and Basic Computer Skills’ and the ‘Knowledge of the Concerned Subject’. The syllabus of Research Aptitude, and Basic English language and computer skills has been mentioned in this document. The syllabus of Post Graduation shall be the course content for ‘Knowledge of the subject of specialization’.

Paper Style of Written Test:
The ‘Entrance Test’ shall consist of three sections i.e. Section-I (Research Aptitude), Section-II (English Language and basic Computer skills) and Section III (Knowledge of the Subject of Specialization). All the questions will be asked in the form of multiple choice types of questions.

Distribution of marks:
Section -I
(i) Research Aptitude: 50 Marks

Section-II
(ii) English Language & Basic Computer skills: 50 Marks

Section-III
(iii) Knowledge of the subject of specialization: 50 Marks

Total Marks: 150

Duration of examination:
Time of written test would be three for (3) Hours or 180 Minutes

Marking scheme:
1. Each question carries one mark. There is a negative marking of 1/4th marks for incorrect answers.

2. 2. The qualifying marks at the Ph.D entrance test will be 50 % for general and backward class candidates, 45 % for PH candidates and 40 % for SC/ST candidates.

Examination:
'Entrance Test' shall be conducted with the multiple choice type of questions. A Candidate shall be provided with one common answer sheet to answer the questions of all the sections. A candidate shall be required to submit both the booklet & answer sheet back to the invigilator in the examination hall after the stipulated time. Otherwise, his/her candidature for the examination will stand cancelled automatically.

Syllabus for Ph.D. Eligibility Test:2014-15
The test aims at examining the aptitude of a candidate and suitability to do research. Hence the following syllabus is proposed for the test.

Section –I
Research Aptitude:
 
 
Section-II
a) English Language
 
 
b) Basic Computer skills
Section-III
Knowledge of the subject of specialization (According to the Masters syllabus in JNAFA University). Each candidate has to choose any one subject based on their proposed area of research.

• Architecture
• Environmental Design
• Urban & Regional Planning

Ph.D ELIGIBILITY ENTRANCE TEST (PEET)
Sample questions in Research Aptitude

SECTION-I (Research Aptitude):
1. Which scientific method focuses on testing hypotheses developed from theories?
a) Hypothesis method b) Inductive method
c) 91.37 d) Pattern method

2. study the relationship of family size to income a researcher classifies his population into different income slabs and then takes a random sample from each slab. Which technique of sampling does he adopt?
a) Random sampling  b) Stratified random sampling
c) Systematic sampling  d) Cluster sampling

The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by seven students in six different subjects in an examination. Study the table and answer the questions 3, 4 and 5 given below.
The Numbers in the Brackets give the Maximum Marks in Each Subject.
3. What are the average marks obtained by all the seven students in Physics? (rounded off to two digit after decimal)
a) 77.26 b) 89.14
c) 91.37 d) 96.11

4. The number of students who obtained 60% and above marks in all subjects is?
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) None

5. What was the aggregate of marks obtained by Sajal in all the six subjects?
a) 409 b) 419
c) 429 d) 449

6. Which of the following is the most essential characteristic of a research worker?
a) Sympathy b) Open mindedness
c) Patience d) Emotional control

7. A good example of sampling frame of patients in a hospital is
a) Register of persons admitted in the hospital
b) Patients visiting the hospital near the entrance
c) Visitors in the parking lot
d) Doctors working in the hospital


8. Which number sequence of the following represents a correct sequence from small to big?
1. Mansion 2.Bunglow   3.Flat  4.Palace  5.House e 6.Cottage
a)3,5,6,2,1,4  b)3,6,5,2,1,4  c)6,3,5,2,1,4 d)6,5,3,2,1,4

9. For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R), choose the correct alternative from the following?
A:  Andhra Pradesh is the “Rice Bowl” of south India.
R:  Andhra Pradesh is the leading producer of Rice.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
c) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
d) Both A and R are false

10. Statement: The economic prosperity of any nation is dependent on the quality of its human resources.
Assumptions:   I. Achieving economic prosperity is a cherished goal of every nation.
                       II. It is possible to measure the quality of human resources of a nation.
Choose one among options?
a) Only I is implicit
b) Only II is implicit.
c) Either I or II is implicit
d) Both I and II are implicit

Sample questions in English Language and Basic Computer Skills

SECTION-II
(
a) English Language :

1. Will this paper test our English? (Choose the correct passive voice construction)
a) Will our English be tested by this paper?
b) Will be our English tested by this paper?
c) Is our English being tested by this paper?
d) Is our English tested by this paper?

2. The witness gave a graphic account of the crime to the police. (Choose the correct synonym)
a) drawing
b) vivid
c) broad
d) vague

3. You read too quickly.  (Choose the sentence which is closer in meaning)
a) You rather read too quickly.
b) You read rather too quickly
c) You’d rather read quickly.
d) You’d read rather quickly.

4. Books ______ the dark clouds of gloom and_____ our happiness
a) disappear, multiply
b) fight, make
c) dispel, increase
d) attack, give

5. They must start their project work immediately.  Otherwise they will miss the deadline.  (Use ‘unless’)
a) They must start their project work immediately, unless they will miss the deadline.
b) Unless they start their project work immediately, they will not miss the deadline.
c) Unless they start their project work immediately, they will miss the deadline.
d) Unless they must start their project work immediately, they will miss the deadline.

6. Identify the part of speech of the underlined word.
He treated it in a light-hearted manner.
a) noun
b) adjective
c) adverb
d) preposition

7. Use the correct form of the tense given in the options to fill in the blank:
My brother___________ (complete) his course of Architecture by 2015.
a) will have completed
b) would have been completing
c) will complete
d) would be completing

8. The boy said, “My father went to Calcutta”. (Choose the correct Indirect construction)
a) The boy asked me that my father had gone to Calcutta.
b) The boy told me that his father has gone to Calcutta.
c) The boy told me that his father went to Calcutta.
d) boy told me that his father had gone to Calcutta.

9. The hotel is in a tranquil rural setting. (Choose the correct antonym for the word underlined)
a) serene
b) soothing
c) disturbed
d) gentle

10. Choose the correct word for the blank to complete the sentence.
Most of the issues discussed here in the meeting were trivial and only a few were ________.
a) interesting
b) practical
c) significant
d) irrelevant

(b) Basic Computer skills : 
1. KB stands for________
a) Kilo Bytes
b) Kilo Bits
c) Kilo Bit
d) Kilo Byte

2. 1 Mb equals to ______ number of kilo byte  
a) 1000
b) 100
c) 1024
d) 500

3. What  is  the  name  of  the  device  that  contains  the  “brain  of     the     computer”
a) Speaker
b) Monitor
c) CPU
d) Printer

4. When saving a photograph for use on a website, which format should you choose?
a) BMP
b) GIF
c) JPEG
d) TIFF

5. The VDU stands for_______
a) Visual Data Unit     
b) Visual Divider Unit
c) Visual Display Unit
d) Visual Display Universe

6. LED stands for
a) Liquid Elevation Display
b) Laser Emitting  Display
c) Laser Equipped Display
d) Light Emitting  Diode

7. Facebook is a
a) Social Network
b) Database
c) Image Viewing tool
d) Document storage format

8. RAM stands for
a) Reduced Application Memory
b) Restricted Access Memory
c) Random Access Memory
d) Restricted Application Memory

9. The valid extension for a file generated using Microsoft word is
a) .ppt
b) .doc
c) .jpg
d) .xls

10. CADD stands for
a) Computer Assisted Design and Drafting
b) Computer Aided Drawing and Design
c) Computer Assisted Drafting and Drawing
d) Computer Aided Drafting and Design
Section III (Knowledge of the Subject of Specialization)

Sample questions in Architecture 
1. Which architect designed the Farnsworth House (Plano, Illinois)?
a) Walter Gropius
b) Tullio Inglese
c) Richard Neutra
d) Mies van der Rohe

2. The maximum distance between the face of the car gate and the hoist way face of the landing door in a residence elevator is,
a) 3 inches
b) 4 inches
c) 5 inches
d) 6 inches

3. Which architectural style popularized the use of synthetic building materials such as glass, plastic and steel
a) Art Nouveau
b) Postmodernism
c) Industrial Revolution
d) Art Deco

4. The structural stability of a geodesic dome is based on
a) The structural strength of a sphere
b) The structural strength and rigid nature of a triangle
c) The meridional ribs and horizontal rings
d) The strength of the geodesics on the surface of the sphere

5. Which of these cities is designed around the palace of the monarch as a central focal point?
a) Vienna
b) Carcassone
c) Montpazier
d) Karlsruhe

6. The significant ICOMOS conservation document which has been the basis of many others is
a) Athens Charter
b) Australian Burra Charter
c) Venice Charter
d) Florence Charter

7. Which of the following types of contracts is most suited for construction of an individual bungalow?
a) Lump Sum Contract
b) Rate Contract
c) Cost Reimbursement Contract
d) Cost plus Percentage Contract

8. Which of the following Mughal ruler’s tomb is built in the middle of a water body?
a) Sher Shah
b) Babar
c) Humayun
d) Adham Khan

9. The public housing project which was famously demolished due to its poor performance resulting from a lack of understanding of behavioural issues relating to environments is
a) Queensbridge Houses, Queens, New York
b) Pruitt-igoe, St.Louis
c) Marcy Projects, Brooklyn, New York
d) Magnolia Projects, New Orleans, Los Angeles

10. In disaster management, risk transfer refers to
a) A mechanism by which impeding risk can be diverted to nearby uninhabited areas
b) Actions taken to minimize the impact of a hazard
c) A tool to ensure that losses from disasters are compensated or recovered by individuals/community
d) Effective mitigation or monitoring measures for hazards

Sample questions in Environmental Design
1. "Garden city concept" was developed by
a) Patrick Geddes.
b) Charles Correa.
c) Ebenezer Howard.
d) Enfant.

2. In Hyderabad building is considered multi- storied when it exceeds height of
a) Three -storey.
b) Six -storey.
c) Ten -storey.
d) Fifteen- storey.

3. Housing at Radburn, New Jersey was the work of
a) Ar. Clarence Stein and Henry Wright.
b) Ar. Andrew J. Thomas.
c) Ar. Robert Alexander.
d) ) M/s Skidmore Owings and Merrill.

4. Disneyland is an example of
a) Large city park.
b) A national Park.
c) A theme park.
d) Planned town with recreation facilities.

5. Boulevard is
a) A ward in a town or city.
b) A wide tree lined avenue.
c) A centre for training of municipal staff.
d) A parkway in a national park.

6. Botanical Parks are mainly for
a) Playing grounds for children.
b) Study of plant species.
c) Decorating the royal palaces.
d) Afforestation of desert areas

7. As per Ministry of Environment and forests Government of India Industrial sites shall be situated from coastal areas beyond
a) 1/2 Km from high tide line
b) 1 km from high tide line
c) 25 km from shore line
d) 1/2 km from ecologically sensitive coastal areas

8. For an average Indian Town the total requirement of water in various uses is
a) 270 litres/capita/day
b) 135 litres/capita/day
c) 800 litres/capita/day
d) 650 litres/capita/day

9. According to LEED Green Building Rating System the percentage of roof surface to be covered with solar reflectance index (SRI) is
a) 60%
b) 75%
c) 30%
d) 50%

10. The slopes greater than 10% without grading are favourable for
a) Free play area
b) Roads
c) Sports fields
d) Path ways


Sample questions in Urban and Regional Planning
1. The International agency which specifically deals with human settlement issues is
a) UNCHS
b) UNEP
c) UNESCO
d) World Bank

2. Which one of the following is not a Millenium Development Goal?
a) Strive for good project leadership
b) Eradicating extreme poverty and hunger
c) Achieve universal primary education
d) Reduce child mortality

3. As per census of India, Class III towns have a population between
a) 10,000-19,999
b) 20,000-49,999
c) 50,000-99,999
d) 1,00,000 and above

4. Regression analysis is not possible with
a) Index construction
b) Nominal data
c) Ratio scaling
d) Interval data

5. For achieving neighborhood security sociologists recommend
a) Private security guards
b) Security cameras
c) Dual access locks
d) Incidental surveillance by people

6. The book “Principles and Practice of Town and Country Planning” is written by
a) Soria -Y -Mata
b) Leonardo Da Vinci
c) Lewis Keeble
d) Lewis Munford

7. "Central Place Theory" of Walter Christaller deals with
a) Transmission of developmental impulses
b) Pattern of activities in space
c) Regional disparity
d) Land use

8. I D S M T stands for
a) Integrated Development for Medium Towns
b) Integrated Development of Small Mandi Towns
c) Integrated Development Scheme for Medium Towns
d) Integrated Development of Small and Medium Towns

9. The term "Conservative Surgery" was coined by
a) Le Corbusier
b) Patrick Geddes
c) Ebenezer Howard
d) Edwin Lutyens

10. Which of these cities is an example of Garden City?
a) New Delhi
b) Venice
c) Paris
d) Welwyn
 
bullet PEET Architecture Syllabus
bullet PEET Urban & Regional Planning Syllabus
bullet PEET Environmental Design Syllabus
 
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